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Exam Code: 7004.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.8 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3601
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which multicast activity should be configured on the edge?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
D. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) Snooping and Proxy
Answer: D

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NO.2 To reduce the number of active neighbor adjacencies, what can a technician configure on the VSP 9000
with Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. OSPF passive interfaces
B. OSPFadjacencies limiter
C. OSPF active interfaces limiter
D. OSPFadjacencies summarization
Answer: A

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NO.3 A technician is configuring a VSP 9000 to run in High Availability (HA) Mode, and needs to set the Open
Shortest Path First (OSPF) hello timers. What is the recommended setting?
A. auto
B. variable
C. 500 milliseconds
D. greater than one second
Answer: D

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NO.4 Buffer wrap is a variable of the Packet Capture Tool (PCAP) enable command, and by default it is set to
true.
Which statement describes what buffer-wrap does when it is set to true?
A. Itenables external flash wrap around.
B. It wrapscaptured frames to the DRAM buffer.
C. It stops packet rapture when the buffer becomes full.
D. It allows the capture to continue when the buffer becomes full.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where is the VSP 9000 log file configured?
A. Menu
B. ACLI
C. Syslog
D. Sysconfig log menu
Answer: B

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NO.6 On a VSP 90O0, Just as VLANs am unique within the system, a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)
is unique. How many VRF instances can a VLAN be associated with?
A. one
B. one petbrouter
C. one per IP interface in the system
D. each customer VRF instance, plus the firewalland communications server VRF instant
Answer: A

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NO.7 During a VSP 9000 boot up, the following log message appears:
"Powering off card in slot 12 due to a low power condition."
Which statement describes how that card is brought back in service?
A. Add more power to the chassis.
B. Re-direct power to that card from one of the spare SFmodules.
C. Change the card's priority assignment for the power-down algorithm.
D. Configure the existing power distribution to send enough power to that card.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Equal Cost MultiPath (FCMP) routes apply to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information
Protocol (RIP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Default and Static routes.
With ECMP, how many equal-cost paths can be configured to the same destination prefix?
A. two
B. up to six
C. up to four
D. up to eight
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the event of a critical process crash on a CP module, when is CP switchover initiated.?
A. within 3 milliseconds
B. prior to core generation
C. upon receipt of a failure log
D. per the power down algorithm
Answer: C

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Which part of the VSP 9000 uses the host route?
A. Equal Cost Multi Path routing (ECMP)
B. The Routing Table Manager (RTM)
C. the hardware
D. the best destination
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6401-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0ms PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

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NO.8 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

Avaya test questions   6401-1   6401-1   6401-1 questions

NO.10 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

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NO.13 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1

NO.14 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.18 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

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NO.19 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.20 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 3200
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.7 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

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NO.9 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI
3.0 document (WID)?
A.Advanced
B.Query
C.Active X
D.Interactive
Answer:D

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NO.2 What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks,
without the ALT key selected?
A.A new block is created.
B.A new section is created.
C.An error message is displayed.
D.The currently selected cell is displayed.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which two operators are available when using wildcards in a query filter? (Choose two.)
A.LIKE
B.Matches Pattern
C.Not equals Pattern
D.Different from Pattern
Answer:B D

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NO.4 Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a
BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A.The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B.The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C.The query drill mode option is enabled.
D.The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A.Used when any condition is met by two filters
B.Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C.Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D.Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer:B C

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NO.6 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A.Dimension - Detail
B.Measure - Measure
C.Dimension - Measure
D.Dimension - Dimension
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A.Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B.Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C.Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D.Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer:A

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NO.8 You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two
methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A.Rebuild the filters.
B.Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C.From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D.Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer:A D

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NO.9 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of
your document data?
A.Document Palette
B.Document Formats
C.Display Preferences
D.Data Tracking Options
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which three types of local data files can you use to create a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0
document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A.TXT
B.XML
C.CSV
D.XLS
Answer:A C D

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NO.11 Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose
three.)
A.Top margin
B.Left margin
C.Page orientation
D.Background color
E.Visited hyperlink colors
Answer:A B C

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NO.12 Which two panels can you use to purge data from a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document
(WID)? (Choose two.)
A.Query
B.Report
C.Active X
D.Slice and Dice
Answer:A B

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NO.13 Which three elements are parts of a query filter? (Choose three.)
A.Class
B.Object
C.Operator
D.Operand
Answer:B C D

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NO.14 Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A.Order Breaks
B.Vertical Breaks
C.Crosstab Breaks
D.Horizontal Breaks
Answer:B D

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NO.15 Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A.Drag the queries together
B.Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C.Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D.Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A.Min
B.Max
C.Count
D.Count All
Answer:A B C

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NO.17 Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A.In the cell
B.In the document
C.In the Metadata Cube
D.In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which two options should you take before you finish creating a variable in Web Intelligence? (Choose
two.)
A.Save
B.Parse
C.Export
D.Validate
Answer:A D

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NO.19 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use
to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A.Sum
B.Detail
C.Measure
D.Dimension
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A.Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B.In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C.Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D.Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
Answer:D

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Exam Name: Business-Objects (BUSINESS OBJECTS Data Integrator XI – Level Two)
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Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 You create a real-time job that processes data from an external application. Which two mechanisms
enable the external application to send/receive messages to the real-time job? (Choose two).
A. Adapter instance
B. File on shared server
C. E-mail
D. Web service call
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Data integrator conations "Execute only once" logic on which two objects ?(Choose two)
A. Conditionals
B. Data flows
C. Scripts
D. Work flows
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Your data flow loads the contents of "order_details "and" order_headers "into one XML file that contains
a node <HEADER> and a child mode <DETAIL>.
How should you populate the structure in your Query.?
A. In the HEADER schema use the order headers for from and leave where empty in the detail schema
use the order details for From and Where clause put order_header_id =order_details order_id.
B. In the HEADER schema use the order_headers for from and put order_header.order_id = order
details.order_id in where clause. In the detail schema use the order_details for from andleave where
empty.
C. In the header schema use the order_header for from and leave where empty in the detail schema use
the order_header for from and put order_header order_id = order_details order_id in where clause.
D. In the header schema use the order_headers for from, and in where clause put order_header order_id
= order details order_id in the detail schema use the order_header, order_details for from and leave
where empty.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You create a data flow that contains an XML file as the output. The XML file structure contains an
element that is used to group other element.
This element occurs once in the output XML file. Which method can you use to ensure that this element is
populated correctly?
A. Enter the value"1" in the single element schema mapping.
B. Leave the form clause of the single element schema empty.
C. Place the source table that contains your source rows into the form clause of the single element
schema.
D. Use a row_Generation transform and select one row then map the transform into the from clause of the
single element schema.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are working in a multi-user central repository based environment. You select "Rename owner" on
an object which is not checked out.
The object has one or more dependent objects in the local repository. What is the outcome?
A. Data integrator displays a second window listing the dependent objects. when you click "continue" the
object owner is renamed and all of the dependent objects are modified.
B. Data Integrator renames the indiviclual object owner.
C. Data Integrator displays the "This object is checked out from central repository "X". Please select Tools
Central Repository. to activate that repository before renaming.Message.
D. Data Integrator renames the owner of all 0bjects within the selected data store.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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