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Exam Code: 000-371
Exam Name: IBM (Web Services Development for IBM WebSphere Application Server V7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Refer to the message in the exhibit.
Replace the ??? in the message with the appropriate namespace.
A. http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope
B. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/
C. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap12/envelope/
D. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap11/envelope/
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following business scenarios is the LEAST appropriate for Web services?
A. Expanding the reach of your company information.
B. Providing transactional services such as credit card payment processing.
C. Making existing services available to a business process to orchestrate services.
D. Enabling interoperability between heterogeneous services to create time-critical solutions.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is used to invoke a Web service from an unmanaged client?
A. JAX-WS dispatch API
B. Deployment descriptor
C. @Resource annotation
D. @WebServiceRef annotation
E. Service and Interface classes
Answer: AE

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NO.4 A company has a high business value JAX-WS provider Web Service and cannot afford to lose any
messages.
What kind of quality of service should be used in conjunction with WS-ReliableMessaging?
A. Managed persistent
B. Managed non-persistent
C. Unmanaged non-persistent
D. Managed persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
E. Managed non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
F. Unmanaged non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
Answer: D

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NO.5 The following methods are to be published as Web services to be invoked via SOAP messages and
validated with a schema:
public void myMethod(int x, float y);
public void myMethod(int x);
public void someOtherMethod(int x, float y);
Which WSDL style should be used?
A. RPC/literal
B. RPC/encoded
C. Document/encoded
D. Document/literal
E. Document/literal wrapped
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can a developer ensure that a fault will occur if the service does not recognize a SOAP header
entry containing a transaction number?
A. Set the faultCode value to soap:Transaction
B. Include a Fault element in the SOAP message
C. Include a mustUnderstand attribute in the header entry
D. Include a detail element containing application-specific elements according to the XML Schema
Answer: C

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NO.7 The WS-I Simple SOAP Binding Profile V1.0 mandates that a message must serialize the envelope
according to which specification?
A. XML 1.0
B. WSDL 1.1
C. SOAP 1.1
D. HTTP 1.0
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the biggest advantage of using Web services to create SOA solutions?
A. They are implemented using Java and XML
B. They support a client-server programming model
C. They are used to create tightly coupled applications
D. They are implemented using standardized technologies
Answer: D

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NO.9 The TCP/IP Monitor can be used to check the following:
A. SOAP/JMS
B. HTTP Header
C. WSDL document
D. SOAP messages
E. WS-I Compliance
Answer: BDE

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NO.10 What is the LEAST appropriate scenario for Web services?
A. To integrate legacy systems
B. To propagate security context
C. To expose fine grained operations
D. To use with process choreography
E. For B2B (business to business) applications
Answer: C

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NO.11 A developer used wsimport to generate the skeleton code for a Web service implementation.
What is the purpose of the generated ObjectFactory class?
A. The ObjectFactory class is the generated Service Endpoint Interface class
B. The ObjectFactory class is the generated service provider class that is used by the JAX-WS client.
C. The ObjectFactory class takes the targetNamespace value and creates the directory structure.
D. The ObjectFactory class allows you to programatically construct new instances of the Java
representation for XML content.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A company is migrating their current JAX-WS Web service running on IBM WebSphere Application
Server V6.1 with the Feature Pack for Web Services to V7.0. The company wants to continue to support
V6.1 service consumers.
If the Web service has WS-AtomicTransaction enabled, what settings should be configured to support the
widest range of clients?
A. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Never" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
B. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Supports" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
C. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Mandatory" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
D. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.0" in application policy set bindings
E. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.1" in application policy set bindings
Answer: BD

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NO.13 Why would a developer prefer to use SOAP Web services over REST Web services?
A. To provide message level security
B. To allow integration with Web 2.0 applications
C. To be able to use XML to format response messages
D. To be able to use the HTTP or HTTPS transport protocols
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer requires a Web service which ensures message delivery.
Which transport should be proposed?
A. SOAP/TCP
B. SOAP/JMS
C. SOAP/HTTP
D. SOAP/SMTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.15 When creating a Web service which requires reliable delivery of SOAP messages, which transport
should be used?
A. SOAP/TCP
B. SOAP/JMS
C. SOAP/HTTP
D. SOAP/SMTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which WSDL style is suited to sending binary tree nodes as part of a SOAP message?
A. RPC/literal
B. RPC/encoded
C. Document/encoded
D. Document/literal
E. Document/literal wrapped
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following is MOST likely to improve the performance of SOAP-based Web services?
A. Use message level security
B. Use fine-grained Web services
C. Use document/literal instead of RPC/encoded
D. Avoid stale data in the UDDI registry by turning off caching
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which specification provides recommendations on the use of encodings to maximize interoperability?
A. SAAJ V1.2
B. JAX-RPC V1.0
C. WS-Coordination
D. WS-I Basic Profile (BP) V1.1
Answer: D

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NO.19 What must be included in a SOAP fault message when an error occurs due to a value in the message
Body element?
A. A detail element
B. A Body fault code
C. An application-specific fault code
D. A fault string element with a value of "Body"
Answer: A

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NO.20 An RPC/encoded Web service experiences poor performance at high message volumes.
What can a developer do to improve this performance?
A. Turn off marshalling
B. Use binary encoding
C. Use RPC/literal encoding
D. Use document/literal encoding
E. Redesign to use more granular messaging
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: 000-550
Exam Name: IBM (IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.2 To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

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NO.3 It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script.
Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. &
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

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NO.4 To set up solidDB in a standalone, HotStandby or Universal Cache configuration, where can the
configuration be performed?
A. The configuration is performed from the command line using the solid command with suitable
option settings and values.
B. The configuration needs to be set in a solid.ini file.
C. The configurations can be set up by using the solsql tool and the operating system services file.
D. The standalone configuration is set in the solid.ini file while the HotStandby and Universal
Cache configuration is set using the sqlcon tool.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A solidDB disk-based database instance has been optimally running for six months and starts to
experience major degradation in performance. Upon executing an overall DB status report using ADMIN
COMMAND "status", it is noted that the value for index writes after last merge is at
20945876. Why would this be a probable cause of the performance degradation?
A. A large value for this counter signifies that the creation of indices, after a large batch insert
process, has been halted leading to excessive memory usage which can cause serious
performance issues.
B. A large value for this counter signifies that a large number of transactions are being
checkpointed which can cause serious performance issues.
C. A large value for this counter signifies that the multi-versioning storage tree is not being flushed
to disk due to a long running transaction which can cause serious performance issues.
D. A large value for this counter signifies that a transaction performing a merge-join is utilizing a
large amount of memory causing potential process paging/swapping leading to serious
performance issues.
Answer: C

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NO.6 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which software components must be installed to deploy IBM solidDB Universal Cache and provide
access to data residing in an IBM DB2 database?
A. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM
InfoSphere CDC Access Server, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
B. IBM solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM Universal Cache for DB2,IBM InfoSphere CDC Replication Center,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
C. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC Access Server,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
D. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM
InfoSphere CDC Replication Center, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the correct setup topology when deploying IBM solidDB Universal Cache in conjunction
with IBM solidDB High Availability (HotStandby) functionality?
A. CDC for solidDB instances are running on both the Primary node and on the Secondary node,
each CDC instance locally connecting to one solidDB server.
B. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to both
Primary and Secondary solidDB servers.
C. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to the Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed using Advanced Replication.
D. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the Primary node, locally connecting to the Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed by transparent failover.
Answer: B

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NO.9 To execute the admin command "status", what is the correct syntax?
A. solsql -e "COMMAND 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
B. solsql -f "ADMIN STATUS 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
C. solcon "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
D. solcon -e "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Which two are directly visible in solidDB server-side SQL Tracing? (Choose two.)
A. longest lasting statements in duration order
B. timestamps of statement preparation
C. timestamps of individual fetch operations
D. timestamps of individual rpc_session operations.
E. list of statements currently under execution
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 You have setup solidDB Universal Cache such that you have a table DBA.ORG in the solidDB
front-end, being mirrored to a back-end database. After some time, you notice that the
subscription is Inactive and you try to start Mirroring (Continuous). The subscription state remains
Inactive and the Event Log shows that the structure of table DBA.ORG has changed. What is the
recommended course of action?
A. In solidDB, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
B. In the backend database, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
C. In solidDB, change the table definition to what it was previously; then restart the subscription.
D. In the Management Console, use the 'Update table definition' option, for the source in the Table
Mappings area; then restart the subscription.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are two effective ways to increase the throughput of replication between the solidDB in-
memory cache and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Add a summarization column to the source.
B. Use multiple subscriptions instead of just one.
C. Update the mirror_commit_after_max_transactions parameter to a higher value.
D. Ensure that the conflict resolution mechanism is set to "source".
E. Use only the Mirror (Continuous) form of replication.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true about
transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)
A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).
B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).
C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).
D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).
E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 What are two methods for generating a trace file containing database statement executions
occurring in the solidDB server? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SQL tracing within the solidDB server.
B. Enable ODBC tracing within the solidDB ODBC driver.
C. Enable ODBC tracing within the ODBC Driver Manager.
D. Enable JDBC tracing within the solidDB JDBC driver.
E. Enable JDBC tracing within the JDBC Driver Manager.
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 To set the transaction log retention space size for solidDB Universal Cache in the solidDB
configuration file (solid.ini), which parameter is used?
A. [LogReader]
MaxLogSize
B. [Com]
ReadBufSize
C. [Hotstandby]
MaxMemLogSize
D. [indexFile]
CacheSize
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-130
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational ClearCase v7.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What is the update site location to install ClearCase Remote Client for Eclipse?
A. http://<cmserver>/clearcase/update
B. http://<cmserver>/ccrc
C. http://<cmserver>/ccrc/update
D. http://<cmserver>/teamserver/scm
Answer: C

IBM   000-130   000-130

NO.2 When is the two step process of metadata creation combined into one step?
A. when creating attributes
B. when creating elements
C. when creating triggers
D. when creating labels
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of a user region map?
A. to allow users to access different VOBs that belong to different groups
B. to set the user's primary group on the CM Server
C. to enable specification of registry region, based on user or group
D. to override the user's primary group setting on the ClearCase Remote Client
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command should be used to change the backup registry server to the primary registry server?
A. rgy_backup
B. rgy_check
C. rgy_passwd
D. rgy_switchover
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are implementing a trigger to ensure users follow comment policy for all element checkin.
Which trigger option should you set?
A. pre-op trigger on CLEARCASE_COMMENT_POLICY
B. pre-op trigger on checkin
C. post-op trigger on checkin
D. pre-op trigger on checkout
Answer: B

IBM   000-130   000-130   000-130

NO.6 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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NO.7 How do you use a single release area, but configure different install options?
A. create multiple silent install response files based on configuration and use the appropriate response file
as input for a specific configuration
B. create multiple sitedef.dat files for different configurations and use the appropriate one as an argument
during install
C. create multiple config.xml files with different configurations and point Installation Manager to the
appropriate one during installation
D. edit the config.ini file to apply a specific configuration before install
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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NO.9 A user tries to log in to the CM server on ClearCase Remote Client, but receives an authentication
failure message.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The user's password has expired.
B. The user does not have log on as service?permission on the CM server.
C. The user does not have log on locally?permission on the CM server.
D. The user does not belong to the ClearCase group.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M77
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Mgmt Optim Technical Mastery Test v2)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Which file records whether the Delete Process was successful for each row?
A. Index File
B. Control File
C. Archive File
D. Extract File
Answer: B

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NO.2 What identifies the tables, relationship traversals, and selection criteria for the data to be archived?
A. Access Definition
B. Archive File
C. Browse Utility
D. Storage Profile
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is TRUE about the Restore Process?
A. The Insert Process is one method used to restore data.
B. Data cannot be restored to the original database if the data model has changed.
C. Data can only be restored from one Archive File per process.
D. Data must be loaded into a staging database before being restored to the original database.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is NOT a function of the Browse Utility?
A. to view related data by joining tables
B. to inspect archived data before making deletions
C. to define the tables and selection criteria for an Access Definition
D. to determine if an Archive File is appropriate for the Restore Process
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which feature should one use to select specific rows from a Start Table to begin an Extract?
A. Selection criteria
B. SQL WHERE
C. Point and Shoot
D. Row List Definitions
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M66
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 In which scenario are the MetaBrokers and Bridges not needed?
A. When you are using the Import/Export Manager utility
B. When you export a business glossary model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
C. When you export a physical model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
D. When you use Metadata Workbench to see the data and job lineage
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Informational Content of a QualityStage Match phase report measures ______________
A. the severity of false positives and false negatives.
B. the significance of discriminating value and frequency.
C. the degree of importance of a particular data field.
D. the confidence of a match.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following is a data quality challenge that can be addressed by QualityStage?
A. Too many data values for a single domain.
B. Too many records containing the default value for a single domain.
C. Data values appear on report in different format than stored.
D. Buried information.
Answer: D

IBM   000-M66   000-M66

NO.4 In DataStage, Table Definitions are imported through ______________________?
A. DataStage Administrator.
B. Information Server Web Console.
C. DataStage Designer.
D. DataStage Director.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tool would you recommend to get an accurate view of the quality of data stored in a DB2 or an
Oracle table, and be able to determine easily the frequency distribution and the format of that data?
A. Use the native DBMS catalog tables, and retrieve the detailed statistics
B. InfoSphere Metadata Workbench
C. InfoSphere Information Analyzer
D. InfoSphere FastTrack
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-556
Exam Name: IBM (Informix 11.50 Application Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What are the two valid methods to obtain trace data for diagnosing JDBC problems with the IBM Data
Server Driver for JDBC and SQLJ type 4 connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Set theibm.jcc.override.trace property.
B. Set theifx.jcc.override.traceFile property.
C. Set the db2.jcc.override.traceFile property.
D. Set theifx.jcc.override.traceDirectory property.
E. Set the db2.jcc.override.traceDirectory property.
Answer: C,E

IBM   000-556   000-556   000-556

NO.2 What is the syntax to query a table that resides on a remote Informix database?
A. database@server:[owner.]table
B. database@server:databasename:[owner.]table
C. database@server:user:password:[owner.]table
D. database@server:databasename:user:password:[owner.]table
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of isolation level results in a lock on every row a query examines in order to retrieve any row
from the result set?
A. DIRTY READ
B. COMMITTED READ
C. CURSOR STABILITY
D. REPEATABLE READ
Answer: D

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NO.4 What Informix onconfig parameter is used to enable specific user level SQL tracing?
A. SQLIDEBUG
B. SQLTRACE
C. SQL_XTRACE
D. TRACE_SQL
Answer: B

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NO.5 You wish to show a user a total balance across all of their savings and checking accounts. However,
you do not want them to be blocked or to see inconsistent information if money is being transferred
between their accounts at the time of the query. What isolation level would you use?
A. READ COMMITTED
B. REPEATABLE READ
C. COMMITTED READ LAST COMMITTED
D. CURSOR STABILITY LAST COMMITTED
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are user created temporary tables used for?
A. To persistently write temporary data to disk.
B. To share result sets across multiple sessions.
C. To access a temporary result set within one session.
D. To automatically delete data based on a time policy.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the attached exhibit, what value does Mary see for their savings account?
A. 0
B. 100
C. 200
D. -100
Answer: B

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NO.8 Assuming you have an employee table that stores the salary for each employee. What will this query
return? SELECT AVG(salary), STDEV(salary) FROM employees;
A. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows.
B. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows not containing NULL salaries.
C. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows assuming zero for NULL salaries.
D. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows assuming the average value for NULL salaries.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which temporary table statement is NOT true?
A. The table can use multipledbspaces.
B. The table can have fragmented indexes.
C. Temporary tables are visible to all users.
D. The table exists until the database is closed.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When using IBM Data Server Driver for JDBC to connect to Informix Server, which URL should be
used when making a connection using Distributed Relational Database Architecture protocol?
A. "jdbc:ids://hostname1:5021/storesdb:user=XXX;password=YYY"
B. "jdbc:drda://hostname1:5021/storesdb:user=XXX;password=YYY" C.
"jdbc:db2j:net://hostname1:5021/storesdb:user=XXX;password=YYY"
D."jdbc:informixsqli://hostname1:5021/storesdb:INFORMIXSERVER=myserver;user=XXX;password=YY
Y"
Answer: A

IBM   000-556   000-556

NO.11 Which URL syntax is NOT used for DRDA communications?
A. jdbc:ids
B. jdbc:db2
C. jdbc:informix
D. jdbc:db2j:net
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can you prevent concurrency problems when other users are modifying a nonlogging or raw
table?
A. Lock the table in exclusive mode for the whole transaction OR use repeatable read isolation level for
the whole transaction.
B. Lock the table in exclusive mode for the whole transaction OR use committed read isolation level for
the whole transaction.
C. Lock the table in shared mode for the whole transaction OR use repeatable read isolation level for the
whole transaction.
D. Lock the table in shared mode for the whole transaction OR use committed read isolation level for the
whole transaction.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When is a cursor necessary in an SQL program?
A. A cursor is necessary before an after trigger can be created.
B. A cursor is necessary when a query returns one row and you wish to examine its content and maybe
update it or delete it.
C. A cursor is necessary when a query returns more than one row and you wish to examine their content
before an update or delete statement is executed.
D. A cursor is only necessary when using DISTINCT, UNIQUE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY or aggregates in
SQL statements.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In an ANSI compliant database, what value of SQLCODE indicates a successful query that returned no
rows?
A. 100
B. -330
C. -201
D. -1
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement describes a select cursor?
A. It is used when you associate an EXECUTE FUNCTION statement with a cursor.
B. It is a cursor that uses the FETCH option to retrieve successive rows of data from another cursor.
C. It is the representation of columns or values that a user-defined function returns after a SELECT
statement.
D. It is a data structure that represents the active set of rows that the SELECT statement retrieved.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which Committed Read isolation level statement is correct?
A. It locks all rows examined.
B. It does not check for locks.
C. It checks for locks after returning a row.
D. It checks for locks before returning a row.
Answer: D

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NO.17 How is the DBINFO function used in the SQL statement below? SELECT FIRST 1 DBINFO('sessionid')
FROM systables;
A. The DBINFO function sets the session id.
B. The DBINFO function creates a new session.
C. The DBINFO function returns the current session id.
D. The DBINFO function is a wrapper to the systables table.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A user has opened two sessions, SESSION_1 and SESSION_2, connecting to the same database
containing a table named customer. The following query is executed first from SESSION_1 and then from
SESSION_2 (without closing SESSION_1): SELECT * FROM customer INTO TEMP cust_temp What is
the outcome in SESSION_2?
A. A locking error.
B. SELECT query will wait till SESSION_1 has ended.
C. Error indicating Temp table (cust_temp) already exists.
D. All rows from customer table will be retrieved intocust_temp table.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two values can be used for connection type field from sqlhosts file when using Distributed
Relational Database Architecture (DRDA) protocol? (Choose two.)
A. ontlitcp
B. onipcshm
C. onsoctcp
D. drtlitcp
E. drsoctcp
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 What is the SQL statement cache used for?
A. To cache static SQL statements.
B. To cache dynamic SQL statements across sessions.
C. To cache all SQL statements for tracing purposes.
D. To provide a history of SQL statements to the application.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-989
Exam Name: IBM (Building Portlets with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 6.1.5)
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Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Jalen has both Rational Application Developer and IBM Rational Software Architect and Eclipse
available to her as IDEs for working with WebSphere Portlet Factory. Which of the following is a difference
that will help her decide which IDE to select?
A. Eclipse provides more efficient class loading.
B. The Rational software IDE is more tightly integated with WebSphere Portal, providing a more seamless
development-staging-testing environment.
C. The Eclipse IDE gives her greater access to test environments, reducing the time required to perform
iterative development and testing.
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory runs equally well in both, so she should base her decision on the
environment with which she is most comfortable and her team supports.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Valerie is starting development of her first portlet using WebSphere Portlet Factory. After opening
Eclipse, which perspective should she select?
A. WebSphere Portal
B. Portlet Development
C. Database Development
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory
Answer: D

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NO.3 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To run and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIsthat are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Tom has added several new portlet models to his existing project, and would now like to add them to a
page on his development portal server. How does Tom get his new portlets to the server so that he can
add them to a page?
A. Use the "Publish Application" project level menu.
B. Use the "Run As/Run on Server" project level menu.
C. Use the file system copy command to move them to the deployed application.
D. Export the project as a "WebSphere Portlet Factory Zip Archive" and import it into the portal.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Heather is preparing to move an application into production, and has discovered that there is an option
to create a portlet WAR file or an application WAR file. What is the conceptual difference between the
two?
A. An application WAR is a prerequisite for deploying aportlet WAR; it represents the container hierarchy
for portlets.
B. An application WAR can deploy multipleportlets at the same time in an application, while a portlet WAR
represents a single instance of a portlet.
C. An application WAR can include profiling for personalization and configuration, while aportlet WAR is
static and cannot be configured with profiling.
D. Aportlet WAR represents a portlet designed to run on a portal server, while an application WAR is a
stand-alone application that has no dependencies on portal containers so it can be deployed to an
application server.
Answer: D

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