2014年2月3日星期一

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Exam Code: 1Z1-478
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.2 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.4 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.5 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.6 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.7 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.8 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.9 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

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Exam Name: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional fundamental exam)
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Total Q&A: 168 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.3 What does a <<use>> dependency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.5 What statements are true of the <<permit>> dependency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: BF

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NO.6 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: AD

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NO.9 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.10 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.11 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<enumeration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.12 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.15 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: BCE

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NO.17 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.19 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: BC

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NO.20 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.1 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

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NO.8 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.14 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.15 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.20 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 050-694
Exam Name: Novell (Novell ZENworks 7 Desktop Management Administration)
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Total Q&A: 179 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Which type of ZENworks application can be used to deliver registry keys, INI files, text files, or
icons without actually installing an application on user workstations?
A.MSI
B.AOT
C.AXT
D.Web
E.MST
F.Simple
Correct:F

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NO.2 When using a Windows Group policy in a user policy package to import an Active Directory
group policy containing security settings, which file are the imported settings saved in by
ZENworks?
A.Zensec.inf
B.Security.inf
C.WGPsec.txt
D.Zenpolicy.inf
E.ZenADsec.inf
F.Zensettings.txt
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which TCP port is used by the Remote Control Listener?
A.390
B.443
C.1762
D.2021
E.8009
F.8011
Correct:C

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NO.4 If you modify the myapps.html file on the Middle Tier Server, users who access the file from the
server have the modified version of the myapps.html file downloaded to which directory on their
Windows workstations?
A.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks
B.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks\Nal
C.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks\Cache\Nal
D.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks\Appbrowser
E.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks\Nls\your_language
F.C:\Program Files\Novell\Zenworks\Nal\your_language
Correct:E

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NO.5 If you're using the Hosts file or DNS to provide host name resolution for your ZENworks
Automatic Workstation Import service, what host name must you configure to resolve to your
Import server's IP address?
A.ZWSREG
B.ZIMPORT
C.ZENWSREG
D.ZWSIMPORT
E.ZENWSIMPORT
F.You use your Import server's host name, such as DA1 or NTI-PROVO.
Correct:E

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NO.6 Which DesktopDNA.exe switch configures the DNA Engine to capture a workstation's
personality?
A./C
B./A
C./P
D./U
E./DNA
F./APPLY
G./UPLOAD
H./CAPTURE
Correct:E

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NO.7 Which policy package contains policies that are container specific?
A.User Policy Package
B.Server Policy Package
C.Workstation Policy Package
D.Service Location Policy Package
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which object can you associate with a workstation package? (Choose 2.)
A.User
B.Alias
C.Printer
D.Profile
E.Security
F.Computer
G.Container
H.Workstation Group
Correct:G H

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NO.9 Which remote management utility can you use to get realtime information about the device
drivers on the controlled workstation?
A.Chat
B.Diagnostics
C.File Transfer
D.Remote View
E.Remote Execute
Correct:B

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NO.10 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click on the parameter in the Myapps.html file you
would edit if you want to hide the left folder view frame of the Application Browser view.
Correct:

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NO.11 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the option in the Distribution Rules page of this
application object that will allow you to manage it in a mixed environment consisting of ZENworks
7.0 and pre-ZENworks 6.5 versions of NAL.
Correct:

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NO.12 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Repackager option you would use to covert
an AOT file to an MSI package.
Correct:

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NO.13 User DGrow.MKT.SLC.DA is a member of the PowerUsers.SLC.DA group. You have associated
a user policy package with the SLC.DA container that configures user desktops to use the Rainy
Day color scheme. You've also associated a user policy package with the MKT.SLC.DA container
that configures user desktops to use the Pumpkin color scheme. You've also associated a user
policy package with DGrow.MKT.SLC.DA that configures user desktops to use the Maple color
scheme. Finally, you've associated a user policy package with PowerUsers.SLC.DA that
configures user desktops to use the Spruce color scheme. When DGrow logs in, which color
scheme will be applied to her workstation?
A.Maple
B.Spruce
C.Pumpkin
D.Rainy Day
E.The user and the group associations are in conflict and, therefore, no color scheme will be applied.
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which policy package is used to configure the Workstation Inventory policy?
A.User package
B.Server package
C.Container package
D.Workstation package
E.Service Location package
Correct:D

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NO.15 When installing ZENworks Desktop Management workstation agents, which information must be
configured if the Novell Client is not being used to access policies and applications? (Choose 2.)
A.The Workstation Manager agent
B.The Remote Management agent
C.The HTTP port number used by the middle tier server
D.The DNS name or IP address of the back-end server
E.The DNS name or IP address of the middle tier server
Correct:C E

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NO.16 In relation to ZENworks Desktop Management and disconnected Novell application launcher
(NAL), what can be used to distribute applications to disconnected workstations? (Choose 2.)
A.CD
B.LAN
C.DVD
D.USB Port
E.Serial Port
F.Wireless NIC
G.Firewire Port
Correct:A C

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NO.17 Referring to ZENworks Asset Management, what is the default port that Task Server uses?
A.997
B.7460
C.7461
D.7462
E.7465
Correct:E

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NO.18 You need to allow users the ability to uninstall a Novell application launcher (NAL) delivered
application by right-clicking the application icon and selecting uninstall. What must be done to
make this feature available? (Choose 2.)
A.An administrator must enable uninstall using a remote control agent.
B.The user must have administrator rights to be able to uninstall the application.
C.An administrator must enable uninstall in the properties of the application object.
D.An administrator must enable users to perform a manual uninstall in the properties of the application
object.
Correct:C D

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NO.19 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click on the Launcher Configuration tab you would
use if you wanted to configure an icon to be displayed for Application Explorer in your
workstations' system tray.
Correct:

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NO.20 You are installing ZENworks workstation agents and need functionality for distributing and
managing applications to associated users. Which feature should you select during installation to
obtain this functionality?
A.Workstation Imaging
B.Workstation Manager
C.Workstation Inventory
D.Remote Management
E.Application Management
Correct:E

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Exam Name: Novell (Tcp/ip for Networking professionals)
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Total Q&A: 149 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Which Windows utilities can you use to examine the host's local IP address? (Choose 2.)
A.PING
B.WINIPCFG
C.IPCONFIG
D.PORTSCAN
E.TRACEROUTE
Correct:B C

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NO.2 What symptom can occur on a network when clients are configured with an incorrect subnet
mask?
A.Clients ARP for remote devices.
B.Dynamic route entries are added unnecessarily.
C.Clients cannot obtain an IP address using DHCP.
D.Routers send ICMP port unreachable messages for remote devices.
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which mechanisms can be used to obtain a dynamic IP address? (Choose 3.)
A.DNS
B.ARP
C.DHCP
D.RARP
E.ICMP
F.PING
G.BOOTP
Correct:C D G

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NO.4 What TCP/IP protocol allows users to remotely access a system as if they were directly
connected to the remote machine? (Enter the acronym only.) Answer:
A.TELNET
Correct:A

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NO.5 How many keys are used for public-key encryption? (Enter a number.) Answer:
A.2
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which steps are part of the TCP/IP error resolution process? (Choose 2.)
A.List all operating systems in use.
B.Examine the communication process.
C.Begin capturing all network packets.
D.Identify the possible points of failure.
Correct:B D

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NO.7 Which tool do you use to determine active processes on a host?
A.ROUTE
B.PING/TPING
C.TRACEROUTE
D.Port scanner
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which routing configuration provides a method for explicitly defining the next hop from a
router to a particular destination?
A.Static
B.Dynamic
C.Directed
D.Link state
E.Distance vector
Correct:A

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NO.9 Examine the graphic below.
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.15
E.16
F.Router C does not advertise routes for Network 6 over Network 3.
Correct:F

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NO.10 What does TFTP use to maintain data packet order?
A.Pointers
B.Sequence numbers
C.Acknowledgements
D.Fixed-length packets
E.A single data packet
Correct:C

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NO.11 What class of IP address is shown below? 233.4.71.222
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
E.Class E
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which protocol provides hypermedia access to resources? (Enter the abbreviation only.)
Answer:
A.HTTP
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which protocol works in conjunction with IP to report errors?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.IRC
D.ICMP
E.SNMP
F.IGMP
G.TELNET
Correct:D

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NO.14 Examine the graphic below.
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.15
F.16
G.Router B does not advertise routes for Network 7 on Network 2.
Correct:B

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NO.15 Perform the drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When you finish,
continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. The graphic shows the steps for data
exchange between a server and a requesting client application using the TCP protocol. Two steps
are already in place. Arrange the remaining steps in the correct order by dragging each step to the
correct location.
Correct:
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6

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NO.16 When do RIP routers advertise their routing information?
A.Every 30 seconds
B.Every 60 seconds
C.Anytime a change occurs
D.When a request for information is received
Correct:A

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NO.17 Your company uses the IP address 168.212.0.0 with subnets 168.212.64.0 and 168.212.128.0.
What is the appropriate subnet mask for your company?
A.255.255.0.0
B.255.255.128.0
C.255.255.192.0
D.255.255.224.0
E.255.255.255.0
F.255.255.255.128
G.255.255.255.192
H.255.255.255.224
Correct:C

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NO.18 How often does an OSPF router rebuild its routing table information?
A.Every 30 seconds
B.Every 60 seconds
C.Every five minutes
D.Every hour
E.At a predetermined interval
F.Only when a change occurs
Correct:F

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NO.19 What is a typical error symptom of a network that was not configured with a required DHCP
relay agent?
A.Clients cannot access their default gateway.
B.Clients cannot obtain an IP address using DHCP.
C.Clients cannot ping devices on another network.
D.Clients cannot use host names to reach other devices.
Correct:B

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NO.20 Which protocol is used for generic communication between proxies or gateways and other
Internet systems?
A.FTP
B.SMTP
C.POP3
D.HTTP
E.Gopher
Correct:D

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2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 156 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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NO.15 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-324
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects )
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

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NO.4 When interviewing customer personnel, you learn of two sets of requirements:
-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

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NO.8 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

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NO.9 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.11 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.13 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

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