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Exam Code: SSCP
Exam Name: ISC (System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 254 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-19

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NO.1 Passwords should be changed every ________ days at a minimum.
90 days is the recommended minimum, but some resources will tell you that 30-60 days is
ideal.
Answer: 90

NO.2 Multi-partite viruses perform which functions?
A. Infect multiple partitions
B. Infect multiple boot sectors
C. Infect numerous workstations
D. Combine both boot and file virus behavior
Answer: D

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NO.3 What security principle is based on the division of job responsibilities - designed to prevent
fraud?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Separation of Duties
C. Information Systems Auditing
D. Concept of Least Privilege
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are some of the major differences of Qualitative vs. Quantitative methods of performing
risk analysis? (Choose all that apply)
A. Quantitative analysis uses numeric values
B. Qualitative analysis uses numeric values
C. Quantitative analysis is more time consuming
D. Qualitative analysis is more time consuming
E. Quantitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
F. Qualitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.5 IKE - Internet Key Exchange is often used in conjunction with
what security standard?
A. SSL
B. OPSEC
C. IPSEC
D. Kerberos
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 _____ is the authoritative entity which lists port assignments
A. IANA
B. ISSA
C. Network Solutions
D. Register.com
E. InterNIC
Answer: A

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NO.7 Instructions or code that executes on an end user's machine from a web browser is known
as __________ code.
A. Active X
B. JavaScript
C. Malware
D. Windows Scripting
E. Mobile
Answer: E

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NO.8 One method that can reduce exposure to malicious code is to run
applications as generic accounts with little or no privileges.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Security Reference Monitor relates to which DoD security
standard?
A. LC3
B. C2
C. D1
D. L2TP
E. None of the items listed
Answer: B

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NO.10 If Big Texastelephone company suddenly started billing you for caller ID and call
forwarding without your permission, this practice is referred to as __________________.
Answer: Cramming

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NO.11 There are 5 classes of IP addresses available, but only 3 classes are in common use today,
identify the three: (Choose three)
A. Class A: 1-126
B. Class B: 128-191
C. Class C: 192-223
D. Class D: 224-255
E. Class E: 0.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.1
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.12 The ultimate goal of a computer forensics specialist is to ___________________.
A. Testify in court as an expert witness
B. Preserve electronic evidence and protect it from any alteration
C. Protect the company's reputation
D. Investigate the computer crime
Answer: B

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NO.13 Layer 4 in the DoD model overlaps with which layer(s) of the
OSI model?
A. Layer 7 - Application Layer
B. Layers 2, 3, & 4 - Data Link, Network, and Transport Layers
C. Layer 3 - Network Layer
D. Layers 5, 6, & 7 - Session, Presentation, and Application Layers
Answer: D

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NO.14 The ability to identify and audit a user and his / her actions is known as ____________.
A. Journaling
B. Auditing
C. Accessibility
D. Accountability
E. Forensics
Answer: D

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NO.15 ______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer: Risk assessment

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NO.16 Trend Analysis involves analyzing historical ___________ files in order to look for patterns
of abuse or misuse.
Answer: Log files

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NO.17 A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
A. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
B. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
C. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
D. Setting a program to attack a website at 11:59 am on New Year's Eve
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the main difference between computer abuse and
computer crime?
A. Amount of damage
B. Intentions of the perpetrator
C. Method of compromise
D. Abuse = company insider; crime = company outsider
Answer: B

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NO.19 Is the person who is attempting to log on really who they say they are? What form of access
control does this questions stem from?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Kerberos
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.20 Cable modems are less secure than DSL connections because cable modems are shared
with other subscribers?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.21 The act of intercepting the first message in a public key exchange and substituting a bogus key
for the original key is an example of which style of attack?
A. Spoofing
B. Hijacking
C. Man In The Middle
D. Social Engineering
E. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which form of media is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI Reference
Model?
A. MAC
B. L2TP
C. SSL
D. HTTP
E. Ethernet
Answer: E

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NO.23 Which of the concepts best describes Availability in relation to
computer resources?
A. Users can gain access to any resource upon request (assuming they have proper permissions)
B. Users can make authorized changes to data
C. Users can be assured that the data content has not been altered
D. None of the concepts describes Availability properly
Answer: A

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NO.24 HTTP, FTP, SMTP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1 - Physical
B. Layer 3 - Network
C. Layer 4 - Transport
D. Layer 7 - Application
E. Layer 2 - Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.25 When an employee leaves the company, their network access account should be
__________?
Answer: Disable

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NO.26 DES - Data Encryption standard has a 128 bit key and is very difficult to break.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.27 Wiretapping is an example of a passive network attack?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.28 An attempt to break an encryption algorithm is called _____________.
Answer: Cryptanalysis

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NO.29 A standardized list of the most common security weaknesses and exploits is the
__________.
A. SANS Top 10
B. CSI/FBI Computer Crime Study
C. CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. CERT Top 10
Answer: C

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NO.30 ____________ is a file system that was poorly designed and has numerous security flaws.
A. NTS
B. RPC
C. TCP
D. NFS
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CSSLP
Exam Name: ISC (Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Practice Test)
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Total Q&A: 349 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?
A. Data redundancy
B. Hardware redundancy
C. Process redundancy
D. Application redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE)
play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about
ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes. E. An ISSO takes part in the development
activities that are required to implement system changes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.5 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.6 The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
C. Identification of vulnerabilities
D. Assessment of attacks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase
successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems
Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries Identify
and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log monitoring staff
wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes. What features will you
recommend? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Asset information storage and correlation
B. Transmission confidentiality protection
C. Incident tracking and reporting
D. Security knowledge base
E. Graphical user interface
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.10 Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work
under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Penetration test
C. Paper test
D. Walk-through test
Answer: B

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NO.12 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.13 Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members
of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to
an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You
have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event.
What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?
A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.17 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition
process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal
budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Answer: A

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NO.20 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.21 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design,
verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
A. Information Assurance (IA)
B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
D. Risk Management
Answer: C

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NO.23 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.24 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of
the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 2
Answer: D

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NO.26 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
C. Configuration Status Accounting
D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer: D

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NO.27 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Espionage law
B. Trademark law
C. Cyber law
D. Copyright law
Answer: B

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NO.28 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:

NO.29 Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?
A. Information system security professional
B. Data owner
C. Senior management
D. Information system auditor
Answer: D

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NO.30 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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Total Q&A: 395 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-10

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NO.1 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.2 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.3 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.4 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.5 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.6 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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NO.7 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.8 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.9 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

NO.10 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

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NO.1 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.4 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.16 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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